I'm hoping to get some clarification because I thought I had everything squared away, but am getting more confused the more I read.
My UK Citizen husband was living as a permanent resident in the US and working up until September 3, 2014. His job here was well over the financial requirement for me to apply for my visa. He has now moved back to UK and gotten a job offer, again, making over the financial requirement. He got the offer today and they want him to start on Monday. I was planning to use the scheme that allows me to apply as long as he made at least the financial requirement over the last 12 months, and a new job/offer since he hasn't been employed for the last month. However, I believe someone mentioned to me before that he can't have started his job yet in order for me to apply under that scheme. Is that true? Because that seems a bit unreasonable. He still has to mail me his offer letter so that I can apply.
Also, since he's been away in England and not working, but still meets the financial requirement, do I need to get his bank statements up to the date I apply, or only up to the date that he last got paid in the US? I got the statements printed from the bank and signed/dated by the bank manager before he left, which was longer than 28 days ago, so I guess I'll need to get them reprinted. Is that what they mean by no older than 28 days old? His pay stubs will obviously be older than 28 days old because they extend back a year. His most recent pay stub is less than 28 days old (I believe) because he got paid after he left). Am I missing something here?