I was posting this on a different forum and someone suggested I post here. Here's the situation:
My husband is a green card holder of just under two years. His dad, who lives in the UK, had to move into a home and gave his flat (primary residence) to my husband and his sister about six months ago. They have decided to sell it and have a buyer. There is no UK CGT because the cost basis was about the same as today when they are looking at selling it. As far as inheritance tax goes, they do need to keep some money safe should their father pass away within the next seven years.
The issue is that CGT in the USA is different to the UK. We discovered that my husband does have to pay CGT because the US government doesn't take the cost basis from when it was given to my husband, but from the date his dad acquired it.
We have received legal advice here and now understand that it was really, really stupid of this transfer to happen. My husband's father wanted to give them his home but he would have happily kept it in his name and sold it and gave them the money if he knew that my husband would have this potential tax bill.
We have explored all avenues and it's not looking good.
My husband wasn't told to get US tax advice by the UK solicitor who transferred the deeds - in fairness, she said to get tax advice but didn't explicitly say US tax advice. My husband is considering contacting her to see if the gift can be undone because he wasn't advised of this. Not sure if that's even possible for her to do though.
Secondly, a UK accountant we've contacted has this argument: He doesn't think my husband should have to pay US CGT because in the UK, when a donor gives a gift of his primary residence, the donor's cost basis increases at that moment. So if the IRS asks 'what is the donor's cost basis?', the answer, in this case, is the FMV on the date the gift was given. If the IRS asks: 'what would the donor's cost basis be if the donor lived in the US', that would be a different answer. But he doesn't live in the US.
Anyway, here's his email in more detail:
In the UK where an asset is gifted, it is treated as a disposal for capital gains tax purposes. At the time of the realisation of the gain, it has taken place in the UK and the seller is UK resident, it is therefore only subject to UK tax. The essence of the gift itself triggers a chargeable event that gives rise to a tax calculation based on the value at that date. Their father has disposed of an asset which, as it has been is main residence for the whole period of ownership, qualifies for Private Residence Relief and consequently no tax is payable. It does not however take away from the fact that in calculating the liability, the value of the property is taken as the FMV at the date of the gift.
Thanks in advance for any other suggestions. This is very unfortunate - it's a lot of money and my husband is ready to pack his bags and go home to England...