I am an American (not UK citizen) living in London for the past 14 years.
Between 2008 and 2012, I bought some shares of Vanguard Total Stock Market ETF (ticker symbol: VTI) in a US account with US Dollar.
I sold some shares of this fund in Jan 2017 and the money was not brought into UK.
For UK tax reporting purpose, I match the sold shares with the oldest purchased shares. It's a typical practice called FIFO (first in first out).
My UK tax accountant told me that I owe HMRC a big chunk of tax because (1) VTI is not a reporting fund, so any gain is taxed as ordinary income (tax rate 40% instead of 20% for capital gains) and (2) the gain is exaggerated due to the steep drop of Sterling post Brexit (my gain measured in USD is moderate, but gain measured in Sterling is significant, but everything in UK tax filing is calculated in Sterling).
I looked into this a bit further. VTI is actually a reporting fund, it's on the official list of reporting funds from HMRC. But it gained reporting fund status on 1/1/2011.
Because I bought the shares in 2008 (before 1/1/2011), my sold shares don't qualify as from a reporting fund.
Now I plan to correlate the sold shares with the those purchased shares after 1/1/2011. This would be called LIFO (last in first out) and it's hopefully allowed.
Is the above the only thing I could do to reduce my tax liability?
I imagine many Americans living in UK owe mutual funds/ETFs back home in an US account. Now Sterling has tanked, does that mean they could not sell funds they've invested in for a long time due to punitive tax treatment?
If I move back to the US (even as a UK citizen), I suppose I won't have to deal with HMRC anymore. Capital gains would be taxed much better in the US because (1) gain is measured in USD (2) all long-term capital gain is taxed at 20%.
Is there any way I could change my domicile status so I don't have to report global income to the UK tax authority? For example, if I move back to the US for 1 year and then come back to UK, would it help?
I also understand the option of remittance basis. It would not make sense for me in most year. But if I plan to dispose a big chunk of shares in one year, could I get on the remittance basis just for the 1 year and then come off it?
Thank you! Any ideas, tips would be welcome.