Yes, I've read it repeatedly and am not precisely sure I understand it.
I moved to the UK in April 2017.
So, hypothetically, say I owe (and pay) $6,000 for 2017 to the IRS.
Nothing due to HMRC as it hasn't accrued yet.
I will owe approx $2,900 for 2018 to the IRS.
I will owe/pay approx $5,500 for 2017/18 to HMRC. I pay this by the end of 2018.
The HMRC tax paid would wipe my IRS 2018 tax liability out when I file my IRS forms in SP2019. And, subtracting, that would leave me with a potential carry-back of $2,600 that I could apply via 1040X to my 2017 IRS taxes.
I will owe approx $2,900 for 2019 to the IRS.
I will owe/pay approx $3,157 to HMRC for 2018/19 by the end of 2019.
The HMRC tax paid would wipe my IRS 2019 tax liability out. I would have a residual amount of credit of $257. I cannot carry that backwards, as you can only carry-back one year. So I would carry it forward.
Have I got that straight, at least?
For the 1116 I file with the tax forms sitting on my desk now, I put in two 1116s - one for the resourced earned income for May and one for the resourced retirement (passive) income for the rest of the year onward to Dec 31. On them I list nothing for foreign taxes accrued or due. I'm doing this to have a "basket" for when I file the 1040X and the revised 1116 in 2019 to do the carryback of unused 2017/18 credits from HMRC?