Hello all, this is almost certainly a silly question but pooling all resources anyway and really appreciate your answers!
If my UKC husband owned a home in the US but sold it and currently does not own, or has ever owned property in the UK, would he be considered a first time buyer (eligible for the first time buyer LBTT relief)? I can't find clarification for this specific circumstance and figured you guys will have encountered it.
Many thanks in advance! 🙂