The HMRC requires capital gains to be calculated based on average acquisition cost (Section 104 holding). We also have to work out the cost of acquisition in pounds.
So do we work out the average cost of the shares in dollars, then for each purchase convert to pounds using the rate for the acquisition date?
Or do we convert the acquisition cost of each purchase to pounds, then average the pound cost?
To add to the woes, I'm not sure I have the acquisition costs for all my purchases over the decades. I can keep track of it from now on, but I've no record of the shares I've purchased and sold years ago.
It looks like the different cost basis, plus the different FX rates of the years, can result in capital gains in the US and UK being wildly different.
Any insight or thoughts?
Thanks, Jonathan