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Topic: stupid tax question  (Read 1175 times)

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stupid tax question
« on: July 27, 2005, 07:26:39 AM »
Hello.

I know nothing about finances and I have a stupid tax question.

I am finally getting around to filling out my 2004 taxes.  All of my income can be excluded, but I want to make sure I get the numbers right.

According to the IRS website I ought to be basing my taxes on income earned from the previous calendar year (Jan-Dec), not the previous fiscal year (Apr-Apr) [http://www.irs.gov/businesses/small/article/0,,id=98673,00.html]. 

If I had a job in the US this would all be taken care of for me as my W-2 would list income from the previous calendar year.  However, I work in the UK so instead of receiving a W-2 I've recieved a blue form called an "End of Year Certificate".  (Is this is a P60? It doesn't actually say P60 anywhere on it.)  I've compared it with my payslips and this is listing my income for the past fiscal year. 

So, when determining my income do I

a) use the "Pay For Tax Purposes" on my P60?
b) dig out my Jan 2004 and Dec 2004 payslips and subtract the "Pay To Date" numbers?

Cheers



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Re: stupid tax question
« Reply #1 on: July 30, 2005, 01:28:21 PM »
You add up your payslips for the period and multiply by the average exchange rate for the year.   ::)
Liz Z i t z o w, EA
British American Tax


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