Grammar question.

Since "none" is a contraction of "not one" or "no one", it is proper to say:

"None [not one] of them works."

You do NOT want to get in chary's way when she feels VERY strongly about grammar! 

 

Since "none" is a contraction of "not one" or "no one", it is proper to say:

"None [not one] of them works."

The sentence "not one of them works" sounds horrible to me.

I would say "not one of which works".

Vicky

A common misconception is that the indefinite pronoun "none" must always be treated as singular.  The usual reason given is that "none" necessarily means "not one" (implying singularity); in fact, "none" is just as likely to imply "not any" (implying plurality). A more accurate way to assess its meaning is to recognize "none" as the negative, or opposite, of "all" and to treat it in the same way, with its number determined by the number or countability of the modifier.

Martha Kolln, in her excellent Rhetorical Grammar*, gives these examples:

Singular:

    * All of the cake was left.
    * None of the cake was left.

Plural:

    * All of the cookies were left.
    * None of the cookies were left.

The word has been used as both a singular and a plural noun from Old English onward. The plural usage appears in the King James Bible as well as the works of John Dryden and Edmund Burke, and is widespread today.

*Kolln, Martha - Rhetorical Grammar: Grammatical Choices, Rhetorical Effects, Longman Publishing Group, 5th Ed. ISBN: 9780205283057

    * None of the cookies were left.

According to many grammar sources, that is incorrect. And, to me, it sounds funny.

None of the cookies WAS left is infinitely more pleasing to my sensitive ears.

A lot of "grammar" stuff is really a matter of style choice, though, isn't it? Also description vs. prescription. What do you do? Count the "sources" on one side, and those on the other and see who wins? Also, without wishing to be cutting, I don't have much truck with the "looks/sounds wrong" category of justifications for positions taken in grammar arguments, except, maybe, as implicit support for my position that it is a matter of preference: yours and mine being different.

According to many grammar sources, that is incorrect. And, to me, it sounds funny.

None of the cookies WAS left is infinitely more pleasing to my sensitive ears.

 

Really? It's exact opposite for me. None of the cookies was left sounds really off.

It does sound like it's the matter of preference in this case, and both usages are correct. (Right?)

"And then there were none". Agatha Christie would have taken care with her grammar, surely?

I want some cookies!  (or cake)

Martha Kolln, in her excellent Rhetorical Grammar*, gives these examples:

Singular:

    * All of the cake was left.
    * None of the cake was left.

Plural:

    * All of the cookies were left.
    * None of the cookies were left.

The word has been used as both a singular and a plural noun from Old English onward. The plural usage appears in the King James Bible as well as the works of John Dryden and Edmund Burke, and is widespread today.

*Kolln, Martha - Rhetorical Grammar: Grammatical Choices, Rhetorical Effects, Longman Publishing Group, 5th Ed. ISBN: 9780205283057

This seems to imply that the verb is really agreeing with the whole phrase rather than the word "none" itself.

This seems to imply that the verb is really agreeing with the whole phrase rather than the word "none" itself.

Agreeing with the singularity or lack of it contained in the phrase, yes. Because "none" can be used as singular in most sentences and plural in all. For example, the sentence, "None but the most stalwart few were left to die vaingloriously on the battlefield," requires a plural noun because it obviously refers to more than one. But the sentences, "None were left," or "None was left," without the specific reference to more than one are both correct - and mean the same thing. 

I want some cookies!  (or cake)

Amen.

Speaking of cookies reminds me of a record that confused me greatly as a child when I heard it on the radio, "Please Pass The Biscuits" by Jimmy Dean. He used the word "biscuit" in an American sense, meaning a "bread roll made with baking powder or baking soda as a leavening agent rather than yeast.".

"Please Pass The Biscuits" by Jimmy Dean.

The sausage guy?

The sausage guy?

He was a country singer first.