I'm married to a UK citizen but will be filing separately for the first time. We bought a house at the lowest the pound has ever been and sold it at a high, making over the 250,000 for a single person. We spent a lot on it, 2 roofs, a floor,etc but I binned the bills a long time ago, so I guess I can't do anything about that.
I've still got to do the figures but we may have made $!00,000 over the 250k - but given I'm married and we owned the house jointly, will IRS agree that only half of that is mine? Or rather if we sold it for about 350K more than we paid, that my share is 175K, so I owe nothing?
Thanks
Doug, who wonders why he's filing at all after 40 years.
