Thank you very much discly for pointing out this memo. The take-away message I get from this is that I can indeed include my employer's contribution to the defined benefit pension scheme in my gross taxable (US) income, "pay tax" on that now via 1116, and then, when I retire back to the USA, I can include my employers contribution (that I included in my income in years past..) in my cost-basis. Great, I calculate that, by doing this, about 50% of my UK pension payments will be tax-free (line 16a vs 16b on 1040)! I understand that I must use the "general rule" to work out the actual number.
However, the part you quote also seems to say something very interesting:
"Amounts contributed by the employer are included in the calculation of the participants basis to the extent that such amounts were includible in the gross income of the participant, or to the extent that such amounts would have been excludable from the participants gross income if they had been paid directly to the participant at the time they were contributed."
I have several university colleagues who are US citizens working the the UK who are also members of the same pension scheme (the university USS scheme). Rather than go the 1116 route, they have always used the foreign Earned income exclusion when filing their US taxes… I always thought that was a big mistake as it means that they would not have accumulated any cost-basis in their pension. However, in light of the highlighted quote from the memo above, it seems to me that, when they retire to the US, they could still count the employer contributions to the pension in their cost-basis since those employer contributions would have been excludable if payed directly as wages (assuming everything falls below the FEIE limit). Is this a correct interpretation?